Jalen te'Kreg
Gaidin
- Joined
- Aug 21, 2004
- Messages
- 951
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- He - Him
<3
Miridy, they are paying the people that fronted the cash back. It's been in the annual financial reports. They're on track to pay it off next year, IIRC.
In addition to that, even if the judge orders repayment, it's not like he's going to have over $20k in a bank account he can just write a check from. From what I've read, assuming he's found guilty, after his time in jail, and his fines are paid, then the garnishing of wages goes to paying the victim back if restitution is ordered.
Can they not force the sale of his assets (like house, car, electronics, furniture etc.) if he doesn't have the cash to pay? I know that's something that can be done here (although I'm a little hazy on the specifics of it - but there are rules like that their primary place of residence can't be sold but a secondary property can; if they own a car valued over a certain amount, it can be sold and they can replace it with a car below the value threshold, and the surplus profits go to paying off their debts etc.).
Thank you Hammer for your information. I have another question, because I do not know the law very well. Is there a way to put a lien on his house, car, property and any tax refunds before trial to make sure that he doesn't put up his house for collateral for bail or to pay a lawyer?
I wouldn't count on that. This forum is open to the public, and as a result, Riley, or any member of his legal defense team could take snippets of what's posted here and give them as examples to the judge as calls from the "victims" for leniency. It's conceivable that the judge *might* accept such evidence, in light of this community having such a strong online presence.
The prosecution might not make the same effort in an attempt to balance that with calls for just retribution.
Miridy, they are paying the people that fronted the cash back. It's been in the annual financial reports. They're on track to pay it off next year, IIRC.
In addition to that, even if the judge orders repayment, it's not like he's going to have over $20k in a bank account he can just write a check from. From what I've read, assuming he's found guilty, after his time in jail, and his fines are paid, then the garnishing of wages goes to paying the victim back if restitution is ordered.
Can they not force the sale of his assets (like house, car, electronics, furniture etc.) if he doesn't have the cash to pay? I know that's something that can be done here (although I'm a little hazy on the specifics of it - but there are rules like that their primary place of residence can't be sold but a secondary property can; if they own a car valued over a certain amount, it can be sold and they can replace it with a car below the value threshold, and the surplus profits go to paying off their debts etc.).
However, this is a legal case, not a civil case, so I may be wrong that's it's a possibility.
My law's a little hazy but I think a court would have to order that, so there would need to be a judgement on the matter, but I think it also depends (and I think this is the case, that US law is similar to UK law in this way) that it depends what type of case is brought against him - Civil or Criminal (although it may be possible to do both?)
My understanding is that a criminal conviction is generally penal - there's nothing in that about compensating the victims, and the reverse is true of civil.
I think a criminal case could be brought re: theft and a civil tort re: fraud ?